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Author Topic: Routing question  (Read 557 times)

Offline sailorskip

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Routing question
« on: October 06, 2019, 04:40:47 PM »
If I have two bases, A and B, and I want to serve destination X, why shouldn't I be able to run a routing A-X-B-X-A?

Thanks.

Online Andre090904

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Re: Routing question
« Reply #1 on: October 06, 2019, 05:16:57 PM »
Because airplanes are based at one of your bases and flights need to start or end at that base. It's a technical limitation I guess.

Offline schro

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Re: Routing question
« Reply #2 on: October 06, 2019, 05:28:01 PM »
Before the concept of bases were rolled out back in the day, this is exactly how it worked - you could fly a-b-c-b-a carrying revenue passengers on each leg. It created psuedo bases, imagine ATL - xxx - lhr and back for all of your routes....

When bases were introduced that was what was traded for it. There's also this in the manual - https://www.airwaysim.com/game/Manual/Routes/Freedoms/  - the old way allowed more freedoms.

Offline JohnGaleazza

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Re: Routing question
« Reply #3 on: October 07, 2019, 07:11:53 PM »
Yes.  One of the limitations of running a "simulation of real life"  Follow one aircraft (tail #) using flight aware or flight radar for many airlines and you will see that the real world usage of aircrafts is nothing like how it's done in this simulation.  Take my national carrier (Air Canada) a single aircraft might fly YUL-YYZ-JFK-YOW-YYZ-YWG-YVR-LAX-YYZ-YUL repeat.  However this is a natural limitation of a simulation.  Some things are just to tedius, time consuming, calculation intensive to economically include in the simulation

Offline Cardinal

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Re: Routing question
« Reply #4 on: October 07, 2019, 07:50:12 PM »
It was abused to create pseudo-bases to snuff out competition.

 

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